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Old 10-17-2009, 08:01 AM   #1 (permalink)
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Access Point I.P.

I have a modem/router with an I.P. ending in 1.254.

I have two access points that have a default local I.P. ending in 0.50.

I changed the second AP to end in 0.51 and everything is working.

My question is should I have configured the two access points to end with 1.XX rather than 0.XX??

Modem/router and APs are different brands.

Thanks.
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Old 10-17-2009, 08:39 AM   #2 (permalink)
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Re: Access Point I.P.

No, if you put them in a different subnet, they will not be accessible.
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Old 10-17-2009, 09:12 AM   #3 (permalink)
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Re: Access Point I.P.

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Originally Posted by johnwill View Post
No, if you put them in a different subnet, they will not be accessible.
Thanks for your reply!

So I must re-config the APs to 1.xx

Why are they working now as configured as 0.xx?
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Old 10-17-2009, 10:16 AM   #4 (permalink)
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Re: Access Point I.P.

What is the make and model of your modem, router and APs?
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Old 10-18-2009, 08:05 AM   #5 (permalink)
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Re: Access Point I.P.

I'm also interested in seeing all the exact make/model of the equipment.

If it's currently working, what's the problem?
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Old 10-18-2009, 08:46 AM   #6 (permalink)
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Re: Access Point I.P.

The modem/router is a Netopia - not sure of the model, but I think it's a Cayman 3346.

The APs are Dlink-1522

There is no problem now, but I can't figure out how it could be working when the router subnet is 1.xx and the APs are configured with 0.xx

Thanks!
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Old 10-18-2009, 12:06 PM   #7 (permalink)
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Re: Access Point I.P.

Perhaps there is a route set up on the router that points to the 192.168.0.0 network?
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Old 10-18-2009, 02:50 PM   #8 (permalink)
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Re: Access Point I.P.

Another point, the IP address for the WAP is likely just for configuration, and the WAP is just passing any traffic that shows up.
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