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| Networking Support General Networking Support Forum |
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#1 (permalink) |
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Registered User
Join Date: Oct 2009
Posts: 4
OS: OSX
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Access Point I.P.
I have a modem/router with an I.P. ending in 1.254.
I have two access points that have a default local I.P. ending in 0.50. I changed the second AP to end in 0.51 and everything is working. My question is should I have configured the two access points to end with 1.XX rather than 0.XX?? Modem/router and APs are different brands. Thanks. |
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#2 (permalink) |
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Manager, Networking Forums
Join Date: Sep 2002
Location: S.E. Pennsylvania, US
Posts: 41,921
OS: Windows 7, XP-Pro, Vista, Linux
Blog Entries: 1
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Re: Access Point I.P.
No, if you put them in a different subnet, they will not be accessible.
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#5 (permalink) |
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Manager, Networking Forums
Join Date: Sep 2002
Location: S.E. Pennsylvania, US
Posts: 41,921
OS: Windows 7, XP-Pro, Vista, Linux
Blog Entries: 1
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Re: Access Point I.P.
I'm also interested in seeing all the exact make/model of the equipment.
![]() If it's currently working, what's the problem?
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#6 (permalink) |
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Registered User
Join Date: Oct 2009
Posts: 4
OS: OSX
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Re: Access Point I.P.
The modem/router is a Netopia - not sure of the model, but I think it's a Cayman 3346.
The APs are Dlink-1522 There is no problem now, but I can't figure out how it could be working when the router subnet is 1.xx and the APs are configured with 0.xx Thanks! |
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#8 (permalink) |
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Manager, Networking Forums
Join Date: Sep 2002
Location: S.E. Pennsylvania, US
Posts: 41,921
OS: Windows 7, XP-Pro, Vista, Linux
Blog Entries: 1
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Re: Access Point I.P.
Another point, the IP address for the WAP is likely just for configuration, and the WAP is just passing any traffic that shows up.
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If TSF has helped you, Tell us about it! or Donate to help keep the site up! Microsoft MVP - Windows Desktop Experience |
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